The Demand For Risk And A Macroeconomic Theory of Credit Default Swaps: Part 1

A Higher Plane

In this article, I will return to the ideas proposed in my article entitled, “A Conceptual Framework For Analyzing Systemic Risk,” and once again take a macro view of the role that derivatives play in the financial system and the broader economy.  In that article, I said the following:

“Practically speaking, there is a limit to the amount of risk that can be created using derivatives. This limit exists for a very simple reason: the contracts are voluntary, and so if no one is willing to be exposed to a particular risk, it will not be created and assigned through a derivative. Like most market participants, derivatives traders are not in engaged in an altruistic endeavor. As a result, we should not expect them to engage in activities that they don’t expect to be profitable. Therefore, we can be reasonably certain that the derivatives market will create only as much risk as its participants expect to be profitable.”

The idea implicit in the above paragraph is that there is a level of demand for exposure to risk. By further formalizing this concept, I will show that if we treat exposure to risk as a good, subject to the observed law of supply and demand, then credit default swaps should not create any more exposure to risk in an economy than would be present otherwise and that credit default swaps should be expected to reduce the net amount of exposure to risk. This first article is devoted to formalizing the concept of the price for exposure to risk and the expected payout of a derivative as a function of that price.

Derivatives And Symmetrical Exposure To Risk

As stated here, my own view is that risk is a concept that has two components: (i) the occurrence of an event and (ii) a magnitude associated with that event. This allows us to ask two questions: What is the probability of the event occurring? And if it occurs, what is the expected value of its associated magnitude? We say that P is exposed to a given risk if P expects to incur a gain/loss if the risk-event occurs. We say that P has positive exposure if P expects to incur a gain if the risk-event occurs; and that P has negative exposure if P expects to incur a loss if the risk-event occurs.

Exposure to any risk assigned through a derivative contract will create positive exposure to that risk for one party and negative exposure for the other. Moreover the magnitudes of each party’s exposure will be equal in absolute value. This is a consequence of the fact that derivatives contracts cause payments to be made by one party to the other upon the occurrence of predefined events. Thus, if one party gains X, the other loses X. And so exposure under the derivative is perfectly symmetrical. Note that this is true even if a counterparty fails to pay as promised. This is because there is no initial principle “investment” in a derivative. So if one party defaults on a payment under a derivative, there is no cash “loss” to the non-defaulting party. That said, there could be substantial reliance losses. For example, you expect to receive a $100 million credit default swap payment from XYZ, and as a result, you go out and buy $1,000 alligator skin boots, only to find that XYZ is bankrupt and unable to pay as promised. So, while there would be no cash loss, you could have relied on the payments and planned around them, causing you to incur obligations you can no longer afford. Additionally, you could have reported the income in an accounting statement, and when the cash fails to appear, you would be forced to “write-down” the amount and take a paper loss. However, the derivatives market is full of very bright people who have already considered counterparty risk, and the matter is dealt with through the dynamic posting of collateral over the life of the agreement, which limits each party’s ability to simply cut and run. As a result, we will consider only cash losses and gains for the remainder of this article.

The Price Of Exposure To Risk

Although parties to a derivative contract do not “buy” anything in the traditional sense of exchanging cash for goods or services, they are expressing a desire to be exposed to certain risks. Since the exposure of each party to a derivative is equal in magnitude but opposite in sign, one party is expressing a desire for exposure to the occurrence of an event while the other is expressing a desire for exposure to the non-occurrence of that event. There will be a price for exposure. That is, in order to convince someone to pay you $1 upon the occurrence of event E, that other person will ask for some percentage of $1, which we will call the fee.  Note that as expressed, the fee is fixed. So we are considering only those derivatives for which the contingent payout amounts are fixed at the outset of the transaction. For example, a credit default swap that calls for physical delivery fits into this category. As this fee increases, the payout shrinks for the party with positive exposure to the event. For example, if the fee is $1 for every dollar of positive exposure, then even if the event occurs, the party with positive exposure’s payments will net to zero.

This method of analysis makes it difficult to think in terms of a fee for positive exposure to the event not occurring (the other side of the trade). We reconcile this by assuming that only one payment is made under every contract, upon termination. For example, assume that A is positively exposed to E occurring and that B is negatively exposed to E occurring. Upon termination, either E occurred prior to termination or it did not.

sym-exposure2

If E did occur, then B would pay N \cdot(1 - F) to A, where F is the fee and N is the total amount of A’s exposure, which in the case of a swap would be the notional amount of the contract. If E did not occur, then A would pay N\cdot F. If E is the event “ABC defaults on its bonds,” then A and B have entered into a credit default swap where A is short on ABC bonds and B is long. Thus, we can think in terms of a unified price for both sides of the trade and consider how the expected payout for each side of the trade changes as that price changes.

Expected Payout As A Function Of Price

As mentioned above, the contingent payouts to the parties are a function of the fee. This fee is in turn a function of each party’s subjective valuation of the probability that E will actually occur. For example, if A thinks that E will occur with a probability of \frac{1}{2}, then A will accept any fee less than .5 since A’s subjective expected payout under that assumption is N (\frac{1}{2}(1 - F) - \frac{1}{2}F ) = N (\frac{1}{2} - F). If B thinks that E will occur with a probability of \frac {1}{4}, then B will accept any fee greater than .25 since his expected payout is N (\frac{3}{4} F - \frac{1}{4}(1 - F)) = N (F - \frac{1}{4} ). Thus, A and B have a bargaining range between .25 and .5. And because each perceives the trade to have a positive payout upon termination within that bargaining range, they will transact. Unfortunately for one of them, only one of them is correct. After many such transactions occur, market participants might choose to report the fees at which they transact. This allows C and D to reference the fee at which the A-B transaction occurred. This process repeats itself and eventually market prices will develop.

Assume that A and B think the probability of E occurring is p_A and p_B respectively. If A has positive exposure and B has negative, then in general the subjective expected payouts for A and B are N (p_A - F) and N ( F - p_B) respectively. If we plot the expected payout as a function of F, we get the following:

payout-v-fee4

The red line indicates the bargaining range.  Thus, we can describe each participant’s expected payout in terms of the fee charged for exposure. This will allow us to compare the returns on fixed fee derivatives to other financial assets, and ultimately plot a demand curve for fixed fee derivatives as a function of their price.

15 thoughts on “The Demand For Risk And A Macroeconomic Theory of Credit Default Swaps: Part 1

  1. Thank you once again for a clear exposition of your approach.
    “I will show that if we treat exposure to risk as a good, subject to the observed law of supply and demand, then credit default swaps should not create any more exposure to risk in an economy than would be present otherwise”

    I like the idea of treating risk as a good, but I think you leave out one of the essential characteristics of credit derivatives when you assume that a credit derivative is a good that pays out only at termination to either the buyer or the seller. The fact is that the buyer makes on going payments to the seller — often starting before collateral is even posted. And the seller only posts collateral if the value of the derivative moves against him. It is a trivial matter of the mathematics of discounting to show that a seller with a low discount rate and an expectation that payments (including collateral) will not need to be posted for the next year or two may choose to take on risk simply because the seller values the current income stream so highly.

    In other words to demonstrate your desired conclusion when the time factors of credit derivative payments are taken into account, you will need to demonstrate that there are no sellers who have low discount rates.

  2. ersosfan,

    Thanks, trying to follow this. Can you explain how this is different/better than the typical CDS pricing approach which is: PV(probability-adjusted premium leg) = PV(probability-adjusted protection leg); e.g., http://www.bionicturtle.com/learn/article/valuation_of_credit_default_swap_cds_9_min_briefcast/

    I guess by including the fee (CDS premium) on both sides, N(1-F) means to be a net payoff? But normally, we say N*(1-recovery) is the protection side, while N*fee is the premium side. Again, in other words, in your terms, the fee is what sets both sides equal: PV(fees paid = notional * fee * survival probability) = PV(notional * [1-recovery] * default probability).

    I use John Hull for my customers, here is an example spreadsheet, I imagine you are already familiar with this approach: http://www.editgrid.com/bt/frm_2008/CDS_valuation

    And, under this typical approach, to add to Acc’s point, there seem to be two additional variables that complicate the calibration of a CDS survival curve (or, under your approach, a demand curve)

    1. The term structure of discount rates; the buyer/seller may have different term structures (Acc’s point), and
    2. The recovery rate assumption

    Thanks, David

  3. erdosfan,

    Including discounting allows us to consider the possibility that a derivative seller with a very short time horizon is not overly concerned about the possibility that he may not have the means to post collateral or make payment at termination (example: AIG, which according to reports did not take collateral posting requirements into account when analyzing the risks of its CDS).

  4. erdosfan,

    Yes, I got that, it’s similar to building (bootstrapping) a survival curve based on CDS market quotes. Standard stuff. But your is a bit different, and my point is the other variables are term structure (discount rates) and recovery rates.

    David

  5. erdosfan,

    If you agree that are some “A”s who are more worried about the future and some “A”s who are less worried about the future, and that the latter will charge lower fees for a given amount of insurance, then we can expect buyers will prefer the prices offered by the “A”s who charge lower fees.

    The problem is that the “A”s who charge lower fees are precisely those who do one of the following: (i) like AIG, don’t really understand the obligation they’re taking on (i.e. they fail to take into account all of the future costs of selling the swap) or (ii) are willing to risk going bankrupt in exchange for current income.

    Of course, the buyers could vet the sellers well enough to exclude all of the sellers who offer low priced swaps — but the evidence doesn’t seem to support this view.

  6. ACC,

    With all due respect, I think you’re missing the point. What you said above does not bear in any way on the material in this article. I’m setting up a framework to consider the demand for credit default swaps.

  7. erdosfan,

    My point is that in order to plot a demand curve for credit default swaps you are going to need to consider “A”s (and “B”s) with different characteristics.

  8. Pingback: The Demand For Risk And A Macroeconomic Theory of Derivatives: Part 2 « Derivative Dribble

  9. “the derivatives market is full of very bright people who have already considered counterparty risk” …
    A few of those bought protection from AIG. Were they dumb, because AIG couldn’t pay, or bright because they counted on the bailout that, so far, is costing the taxpayers more than $150 Billion. The taxpayers are suffering cash losses, contrary to your second article’s assertion that “there are no net cash losses under a credit default swap.” For me as a taxpayer, my involuntary and not contracted for exposure has been hugely asymmetrical, contrary to your statement above that “exposure under the derivative is perfectly symmetrical.”
    According to http://businessmirror.com.ph/index.php?option=com_content&view=article&id=4221:downgrades-and-downfall&catid=34:perspective&Itemid=62 in Nov. 2008, the new head of AIG Financial Products, Pasciucco found “Financial Products had $2.7 trillion worth of swap contracts and positions.”

    Your assuming away the problem of risk to non counterparties makes your article worse than worthless. Even if you assume the market should remain unregulated, in recent months and for the future, the biggest risk in AIG and many other CDSs is whether or not the taxpayers will bail out the protection seller.

  10. Howard,

    AIG was AAA rated, and therefore not required to post collateral. Relying on rating agencies was not considered “dumb.” It was market practice.

    As for risks to those other than the parties of a swap, I suggest you read the second part of this article before making idiotic comments about how I’ve ignored these risks. I also recommend you read my article clearly titled “A Conceptual Framework For Analyzing Systemic Risk.” It can be found here: https://derivativedribble.wordpress.com/2008/11/08/a-conceptual-framework-for-analyzing-systemic-risk/

    Even assuming that some of the bailout money went towards paying swap counterparties, there would be no cash loss. You might lose money, but the swap counterparty would gain exactly that amount.

    Intelligent comments are welcome. I’ll approve your idiocy this one time. Next time, either frame your comments in the form of an intelligent and polite argument, or take it somewhere else.

  11. Pingback: Populist rage, childish blame, and jealousy « We Raised our Hands because our Voices were not Enough

Leave a comment